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Biochemistry MCQ Set 2
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1. Arrangement of nucleotides in DNA can be seen using which of the following instruments?
Electron microscope
Light microscope
X-Ray crystallography
Ultracentrifuge
2. Which of the following involves carrying genetic information from DNA for protein synthesis?
sn-RNA
r-RNA
m-RNA
t-RNA
3. Which of the following is true about tm?
The higher the content of G ≡ C base pairs, the lower the tm
The higher the content of A = T base pairs, the higher the tm
It can be termed as renaturation temperature
The higher the content of G ≡ C base pairs, the higher the tm
4. Which of the following is true about the Z-DNA helix?
It has fewer base pairs per turn than B-DNA
It tends to be found at the 3’ end of the genes
It has alternating GC sequences
It is a permanent conformation of DNA
5. Which of the following temperature best suits the growth and multiplication of transformed cells?
25°C
26°C
37°C
30°C
6. Which of the following enzyme is used in PCR?
EcoRII
EcoRI
Taq DNA polymerase
HRP
7. Which of the following temperature best suits the growth and multiplication of transformed cells?
25°C
26°C
37°C
30°C
8. Which of the following enzyme is used in PCR?
EcoRII
EcoRI
Taq DNA polymerase
HRP
9. Which of the following temperature best suits the growth and multiplication of transformed cells?
25°C
26°C
37°C
30°C
10. Recombinant DNA construction involves ____________
Cleaving DNA with a restriction endonuclease and joining with polymerase
Cleaving and joining DNA with restriction endonuclease
Cleaving DNA with a restriction endonuclease and joining with ligase
Cleaving DNA with ligase and joining with endonuclease
11. Which of the following is termed as conserved gene order?
Microarray
Ortholog
Synteny
Paralog
12. Meristem culture helps in developing which of the following?
Hybrid plants
Virus free plants
Tall plants
Disease resistant plants
13. Biochemistry MCQ on Lipids, Biological Membranes and Transport 1. The number of milligrams of KOH required to neutralize the free and combined fatty acid in one gram of a given fat is called __________
Polenske number
Acid number
Saponification number
Iodine number
14. Which of the following membrane lipids have a direct glycosidic linkage between the head-group sugar and the backbone glycerol?
Ether lipids
Sphingolipids
Glycolipids
Phospholipids
15. Which of the following hormone is responsible for the activation of phospholipase C?
Adrenaline
Serotonin
Cortisol
Vasopressin
16. Which of the following membranes contain low cholesterol and high cardiolipin?
Cell wall
Inner mitochondrial membrane of the hepatocyte
Myelin sheath
Plasma membrane
17. Which of the following is a choline-containing lipid?
Phosphatidylethanolamine
Phosphatidylserine
Sphingomyelin
Phosphatidylglycerol
18. Which of the following proteins does not function in cell-cell interaction?
Cadherin
Cytochrome c
Integrin
N-CAM
19. How many types of signal transducers are there?
6
7
8
4
20. Which of the following is a intracellular second messengers?
Glycine
Glutamate
Acetylcholine
IP3
21. Which of the following is not correct about phosphorylation by IRS on serine residue?
Target tissues fail to respond to circulating insulin
It increases insulin levels
It is an inhibitory phosphorylation
It is molecular mechanism for insulin resistance
22. Which of the following catalyzes the cutting of PIP2 into 2 moles of IP3 and diacylglycerol in cell signaling?
Phosphodiesterase
Phosphokinase C
Phospholipase C
Lipokinase
23. Which of the following directly phosphorylate tyrosines to start a kinase protein enzymatic cascade?
Receptor threonine kinase
Receptor serine kinase
Receptor tyrosine kinase
Receptor guanylyl cyclases
24. When visual stimulus reaches receptors in retina of eye, first process involving absorption of physical energy by receptors is?
Coding
Adaptation
Transduction
Reception
25. Which of the following drug is used to terminate early pregnancies?
Victoza
Glucophage
RU486
Metformin
26. Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis?
Pairing of homologous chromosomes at metaphase plate
Separation of sister chromatids at anaphase
Attachment of spindle fibers to kinetochore
Replication of DNA prior to start of cell division
27. Migration of cancerous cells from the site of origin to other part of the body forming secondary tumors is called ___________
Proliferation
Diapedesis
Apoptosis
Metastasis
28. Which of the following is the study of energy relationships and conversions in biological systems?
Biochemistry
Biotechnology
Biotechnology
Bioenergetics
29. Anabolism and catabolism are chemically linked in the form of __________
ASP
ADP
ATP
Phosphodiester linkage
30. Which of the following is not a flavoprotein?
NADH dehydrogenase-Qreductase
Succinate dehydrogenase
Xanthine oxidase
Cytochrome c
31. Whenever the cell’s ATP supply is depleted, which of the following enzyme’s activity is increased?
Pyruvate kinase
Phosphofructokinase-1
Hexokinase
Glucokinase
32. Whenever the cell’s ATP supply is depleted, which of the following enzyme’s activity is increased?
Pyruvate kinase
Phosphofructokinase-1
Hexokinase
Glucokinase
33. Which of the following enzyme is responsible for the conversion of glucose 1-phosphate to glucose 6-phosphate?
Epimerase
Phosphoglucomutase
Glycogen phosphorylase
Isomerase
34. Which is the major factor(s) determining whether glucose is oxidized by aerobic or anaerobic glycolysis?
Presence of high AMP
NADH and the ATP/ADP ratio
Ca+2
FADH2
35. Which of the following is not an important precursor of glucose in animals?
Pyruvate
Glucose 6-phosphate
Lactate
Glycerol
36. Which of the following is not an important precursor of glucose in animals?
Pyruvate
Glucose 6-phosphate
Lactate
Glycerol
37. Which of the following enzymes acts in the pentose phosphate pathway?
6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase
Pyruvate kinase
Glycogen phosphorylase
Aldolase
38. Which of the following is not a factor determining the activity of an enzyme?
Nucleotides
Association with regulatory protein
Sequestration
Allosteric regulation
39. How many steps are catalyzed by different enzymes in glycolysis and gluconeogenesis?
3
4
1
2
40. Which compounds are responsible for the coordinated regulation of glucose and glycogen metabolism?
Fructose 2, 6-bisphosphate
Acetyl co-A
NADH
NAD+
41. Which of the following is a measure of the effect of an enzyme’s concentration on flux through a multi-enzyme pathway?
Metabolic control
Response coefficient
Elasticity coefficient
Flux control coefficient
42. Which of the following is a measure of how responsive the enzyme is to changes in the concentration of a metabolite?
Metabolic control
Response coefficient
Flux control coefficient
Elasticity coefficient
43. Which of the following is a measure of how responsive the enzyme is to changes in the concentration of a metabolite?
Metabolic control
Response coefficient
Flux control coefficient
Elasticity coefficient
44. Which is the first step in the catabolism of most L-amino acids once they have reached the liver is promoted?
Glutamine synthase
Glutamate dehydrogenase
Glutaminase
Amino transferases
45. Which of the following operates at an important intersection of carbon and nitrogen metabolism?
lutamine synthase
Glutaminase
Glutaminase
Amino transferases
46. Which of the following is the first amino group entering into urea cycle?
Argininosuccinate
Cituilline
Carbamoyl phosphate
Ornithine
47. Which of the following are exclusively glucogenic?
Lysine
Leucine
Threonine
Arginine
48. Which of the following produces pyruvate?
Alanine
Leucine
Isoleucine
Lysine
49. Complex 4 is also known as _________
Cytochrome oxidase
NADH dehydrogenase
Succinate dehydrogenase
Cytochrome bc1 complex
50. Which of the following is the prosthetic group of NADH dehydrogenase?
FAD
FMN
NADH
NADPH
51. Long-chain fatty acids are oxidized step-wise in one-carbon unit starting from ____________
Aliphatic end
Carboxyl end
a and b
None of the mentioned
52. Which effects the increased levels of hydrogen ions in the inter-membrane space of the mitochondria?
Decreased levels of chemiosmosis
Increased levels of water in inter-membrane space
Increase ATP production
Decreased levels of oxidative phosphorylation
53. How many mitochondrial proteins are encoded in nuclear genes and imported into mitochondria after their synthesis?
300
500
700
900
54. What is the effect of the excessive rate of apoptosis?
AIDS
Fever
Atrophy
Sneezing
55. Which one of the following is the source of electrons in photosynthesis? a) NADH b) Water c) Carbohydrates d) Which one of the following is the source of electrons in photosynthesis?
NADH
Water
Carbohydrates
CO2
56. Which of the following is the correct sequence for the movement of electrons during the light-dependent reactions of plants?
P680, water, P700, NADP+
Water, P680, P700, NADP+
P700, P680, NADP+, water
Water, P700, NADP+, P680
57. Which of the following condenses acyl and malonyl groups?
Acetyl co-A ACP transacetylase
Malonyl co-A ACP transferase
β-ketoacyl ACP synthase
Acyl carrier protein
58. Which of the following class of drugs reduce the levels of fatty acids circulating in the blood?
Amphetamines
Thiazolidinediones
Synthetic cannabinoids
Cathinones
59. Which of the following is involved in the bio-signaling pathway that includes membrane turnover and exocytosis?
Phosphatidyl glycerol
Phosphatidylinositol
Phosphatidyl glycerol and myoinositol
Myoinositol
60. How many carbons are present in HMG co-A?
12
8
6
4
61. Which of the following catalyzes reactions that incorporate nitrogen derived from glutamine?
Glutamine synthase
Glutamine amidotransferase
Adenylyltransferase
Glutamate synthase
62. Which of the following gives rise to methionine, threonine, and lysine?
Glutamate
Serine
Pyruvate
Aspartate
63. Which of the following gives rise to γ-amino butyrate?
Pyruvate decarboxylation
Glutamine synthase
Glutamate synthase
Glutamate decarboxylation
64. Which of the following is degraded to methylmalonyl semialdehyde?
Leucine
Thymine
Glutamine
Tyrosine
65. Which of the following has the lowest level of chromosome organization?
30nm fiber
Nucleosome
Solenoid
None of these
66. Which of the following plays a substantial role in linking together sister chromatids immediately after replication?
Topoisomerases
Histones
Condensins
Cohesins
67. Which of the following has beads on a string structure?
Nucleosomes
Chromosomes
Heterochromatin
Chromatin
68. Which of the following histones shows more sequence similarity among eukaryotic species?
H2A
H3
H1
H2B
69. Which of the following enzymes remove supercoiling in replicating DNA ahead of the replication fork?
Topoisomerases
Primases
Helicases
DNA polymerases
70. Which of the following mechanisms will remove uracil and incorporate the correct base?
Nucleotide excision repair
Direct repair
Base excision repair
Mismatch repair
71. Which of the following process occurs in regions where no large–scale sequence similarity is apparent?
Site specific recombination
Replicative recombination
Homologous genetic recombination
Non-homologous recombination
72. Which of the following is not involved in the post-transcriptional processing of t-RNA?
Attachment of poly-A tail
Base modulation
Attachment of CCA arm
Splicing
73. Which of the following is an example of RNA-dependent DNA polymerase?
RNA polymerase II
DNA ligase
Reverse transcriptase
RNA polymerase I
74. Which position of a codon is said to wobble?
Fourth
First
Second
Third
75. Which of the following inactivates the 60S subunit of eukaryotic ribosomes?
Ricin
Chloramphenicol
Cycloheximide
Diphtheria toxin
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